[matt4077]

The causality between any one adminstration/regime and economic development is far weaker than than your comment implies, at least in the short and middle term (say, a decade).

Specifically, all industrialised countries saw very similar developments, even though their politics differed vastly: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Great_Depression#/media/File:G...

The US and United Kingdom happen to be rather close analogs to Germany. This isn't too surprising, considering they were already economically coupled, especially the financial sector.

In absolute terms, growth would seem to be roughly in line with making up not just the absolute losses during the Great Depression, but also factors in some modest growth that would have happened during that time. Population growth, for example, continued almost unabated during the 1920s.

[atq2119]

I'd argue that the graph you linked to actually shows significant differences between countries.

Yes, they all experienced the depression around the same time, and if you just look at the signs of the slopes there's a lot of similarity.

However, the US was barely back to its pre-depression peak by 1940, while Germany was way higher. The only country in that graph that is somewhat comparable to Germany is the UK.