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by StreakyCobra 2661 days ago
I wanted to comment the same part, but I wanted to let them the benefit of the doubt, so I went to Wikipedia «date format by country» page [1], and summed up from the table how many people have "MD" vs "DM" in their date format:

DM -> 3392/5550 ~= 61.1% MD -> 2158/5550 ~= 38.9%

Note: I ignored both green and red regions that have both "DM" and "MD" in their format.

So it is definitively not the majority of people. Using the word "some" instead would have been better, but "Many" is not totally wrong… I guess.

[1] https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Date_format_by_country#Usage_m...

3 comments

But that is population not a number of countries. If you look at it from a country perspective, the percentage is tiny.
Probably. The statement talk about "parts of the world", and this concept of "parts" can be seen as countries, continents, surface of earth, atoms, etc. I chose to reduce it to the smallest meaningful entity concerning the concept of dates: humans. It is arbitrary, but justifiable :)
You seem to imply it’s wrong to refer to 40% of the population as “many” — which seems odd.
I treat "some" as an informal expression of relative quantity and "many" as an informal expression of absolute quantity. So it is valid to say many countries use "MD" and many countries use "DM", though most countries use "DM" and only some use "MD".