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by mistermann
2662 days ago
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> I simply haven't seen any compelling evidence that they are causally linked to autism, which is usually the claim. Nor have I, I am referring more so to the general public census (and accompanying confidence level), and a very careful and critical reading of the "facts" as presented by the medical "community". Just as a fun mental experiment, imagine a purely hypothetical scenario where vaccination reaction data is not comprehensively collected, where the methodology behind the statistical reporting involves an element of personal judgement (and therefore to some degree inconsistent and subject to personal error), and the reporting guidelines are written in a way that there is a relatively high bar before an adverse reaction incident should be reported. In this hypothetical scenario, might it be possible that the statistics necessary to suggest a possible causative relationship literally do not exist? Now, go do some reading on the details of the actual reality of the data and the methodology behind its compilation. Then compare that to what is written about it in literature, or how it is discussed. |
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Logically, this doesn’t seem true—100% causality or 100% non-causality. The very premise doesn’t seem “scientific”. Are you serious about this claim or laying the groundwork for a different punchline?
I don’t know—maybe you should write an article outlining your response? I’ll read it ;)