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by lucb1e
2671 days ago
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I know it is that way, but I don't understand it. It always seems to me like it just indicates that the exchange rate is wrong: clearly I can buy more stuff if I convert my money to pesos and spend them there, so the peso is just worth less than the amount we get per euro. Could someone recommend some a website or blog post that explains this? (Or is it a simple enough explanation to fit in an HN comment without going hugely off topic?) |
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Gas stations next to each other but divided by a state line in the US have different prices. Taco Bell sells the same burrito for different prices. The same factors apply internationally too, nothing to do with exchange rate.
Hope this was as ELI5 as necessary for HN-level discussion.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Purchasing_power_parity https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Big_Mac_Index https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Law_of_one_price