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by turc1656
2679 days ago
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I could be mistaken, but if the original recording is no longer copyrighted, how can someone copyright an individual performance? Doesn't that fall under the derivative works portion of copyright law? Thereby making it the automatic property of the property holder - which in this case would be the general public, no? |
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https://tunelicensing.com/blog/post?page=licensing-101-publi...