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by eesmith
2688 days ago
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Covered in https://learnpythonthehardway.org/book/nopython3.html . If I understand the trolling logic, "if it's impossible for Python 3 to support Python 2 then Python 3 cannot be Turing complete." This hinges on 'impossible' being used as a technical objection. The argument should be that it's economically infeasible for Python 3 to support Python 2, not that it's technically impossible. |
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What he suggests is that since the python3 interpreter cannot run python2 code, that somehow this implies that python3 the language is not turing complete. This makes about as much sense as saying that since gcc won't compile my Java code, C++ isn't turing complete. In fact it's the same statement.
And there are, in fact, valid reasons why the python3 interpreter cannot run both 2 and 3 code intertwined (mostly because things are ambiguous in such a situation. Does `{}.keys()` return a list or an iterator? How do you decide? Well you need to know if the code you're running is py2 or py3 in advance and you don't.
I include his original statement here: [1].
[1]: https://www.reddit.com/r/shittyprogramming/comments/5ejbr9/p...