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by Retric
2695 days ago
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You have presupposed the answer. Replace a book with a person in that example and have the human walk up to the person and ask a question. Now in that case would saying the person moving the note does not understand something mean the room does not contain something that does understand? Nope. Therefore, saying the human in the original example does not understand something does not in fact answer your question. My lungs don’t speak English, but I can’t speak English without them. |
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The key, of course, is whether we think that the person in the Room actually understands Chinese. The inference Searle wants us to draw, based on our intuition, is that the person does not understand Chinese just because the person is following a lookup table. The way to get around the argument is to claim either (i) that the inference doesn't work—that is, Strong AI does not imply machines understand, or (ii) that the Chinese Room does not imply machines do not understand.
I think (i) is a reasonable claim that follows from understanding what is intended by the term "Strong AI." (ii) is the tricky one. It seems to me the best route out is to find a way to substantiate a claim alluded to by another commentator, viz. the property of intelligence does not exist (though I would say "understanding does not apply" or something like that). The thing is, it does seem to me that understanding is a reasonable category for this case; and anyone who thinks this is likely to feel the force of the argument.