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by tomp
2706 days ago
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No the argument was > Rents are essentially always proportional to real estate prices. which is demonstrably not true in any way shape or form. See e.g. [0] pages 13 and 15 (pages 15 and 17 of pdf) for "median house prices by London borough" and "median monthly private rents by London borough". Westminster has higher rents but lower prices than Kensington. So, yeah, sure, if you include "desirability" in your variables, then you can probably get a regression fit but then the argument "rents are proportional to prices" no longer really makes sense (i.e. you're taking the proportion to be a proxy for desirability and then adding it back to the regression). [0] https://www.london.gov.uk/sites/default/files/house-prices-i... |
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