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by apsec112 5694 days ago
How did you get 0.001%? It says there are ten million HNWI (millionaires). $3.5M is (assuming that one uses half of it for a primary residence, not unreasonable in the Bay Area) somewhat more than a million, so say seven million people are as rich as this guy will be. Seven million / seven billion = 0.1%, not 0.001%.
1 comments

You're right, I think I misread some number somewhere :) .

Still, the distribution is not even, of the 7 million millionaires, a huge percentage are probably just over the one million mark.

You made me download the Capgemini report (I love data and reports :) ), and it says:

"A disproportionate amount of wealth remained concentrated in the hands of Ultra-HNWIs. At the end of 2009, Ultra-HNWIs represented only 0.9% of the global HNWI population, but accounted for 35.5% of global HNWI wealth."

Btw you can download the 2009 report (PDF, requires registration) here, though it's lacking in the "actual figures" department and it's more of the "text and graphs" variety:

http://www.capgemini.com/insights-and-resources/by-publicati...

As an Uruguayan (South America), I'm always aware that you really can't comprehend really how rich people in the U.S. are (and Bay Area in particular, the Bay Area has probably one of the highest per capita incomes in the world).