[DoctorOetker]

define radiate? if you calculate the poynting vector you see energy is not really leaving the system in this case, although there certainly is electromagnetic oscillation/rotation/circulation, so there is no energy violation.

1) If we consider the ground state of a system this behaves as expected quantum mechanically: there is motion in the ground state but no energy leaves the system! Why hold Maxwell equations to a perhaps higher or perhaps falser standard than we hold quantum mechanics??

2) But if a system is not in its ground state we do expect (by the observation that excited molecules emit light) this oscillation/rotation of the electromagnetic field to radiate away energy that leaves the system. (Actually the simplest, most widely taught formulations of quantum mechanics, also don't predict decay of an excited energy state: The eigenstates of energy are valid solutions, and the solutions rotate in the complex plane indefinitely, so here it is both deterministic solutions to Maxwell Equations and Introductory QM predicting incorrectly no decay, with the important difference that Introductory QM can already calculate the energy spectrum, and hence absorption and emission spectrum, glossing over the fact that the transition is not in fact yet predicted)

3) As I said, I am willing to agree to calling Maxwell's equatins schizophrenic, but not because of their coupled equations nature, but because of its indeterministic nature (again a similarity with quantum mechanics!). If we subdivide the worldline of each charge's motion into individual infinitessimmal but continuous motion events, then we can spend a total of one Lienard Wiechert potentials (say 1.0 delayed + 0 advanced, the other way around, 0.7 delayed and 0.3 advanced, or -10.4 delayed and +11.4 advanced, etc!) on each such event individually, i.e. we can have this division that sums to 1 depend on both particle and time, as long as the total applied force in the past and future respect are compatible with the trajectory of the particle... this is quite schizophrenic indeed!

I since long suspect Maxwells Equations to contain quantum mechanical behaviour that has not been explored yet.

EDIT: There are roughly speaking 2 kinds of physicists/students: 1) those who either deny, ignore, gloss over this indeterminacy problem, or point at a pseudo-contradiction, and ignore they are holding Maxwell equations to a higher standard than Introductory QM and "just move on to QM, btw shut up and calculate!" 2) those who recognize explicitly or implicitly this schizophrenia (of the second indeterminacy kind, not the coupledness kind) and have attempted various approaches or formulations to rigorously enumerate/solve for all mathematically valid (self-consistent) histories/trajectories/solutions of Maxwell's equations. Einstein was famously trying to resolve this issue (among others) for the rest of his life, Feynmann worried about it (you can read this between the lines in his Absorber Theory), and so on. I believe many of those approaches and attempts will turn out to be different but equivalent perspectives, once the problem of solving for all self-consistent histories of ME's with given initial conditions has been solved...

I obviously belong to group 2) and given your dissatisfaction, I presume you too belong to group 2). However I believe that the issue is not the maxwell equation's themselves, but our lack of mathematics to solve for all self-consistent histories... Those who do not express dissatisfaction at the lack of complete enumeration of solutions to this insidious/schizophrenic/indeterminacy of ME, or just move on to QM belong to camp 1). There is no shame in that as long as they don't ridicule/demotivate those of us trying to bridge (semi-)classical physics with quantum mechanics... and make the analogies Dyson points out between Maxwell Equations and QM (the first and second layer, etc) more complete.

Perhaps this problem has already been resolved between Maxwell's publication of the ME's, and today. Perhaps the solution is present in the literature, but with very low uptake because most people are in camp 1). Perhaps the person who solved the issue was too modest in describing the significance of what he has concluded, and we will read about it in 70 years...

[Certhas]

jules is pointing out that, as EM + distributed matter is a non-linear set of equations, you can't easily give meaning to point masses. This is true, but the original implication, that the backreaction on matter is ill-defined or "shizophrenic" does not follow. This is a general feature of relativistic theories where you can not have rigid bodies.

[jules]

> if you calculate the poynting vector you see energy is not really leaving the system in this case

Isn't there? That wasn't what I learned. If you set the light charge in motion around the heavy charge, then space will fill with radiation that has energy. No?

> As I said, I am willing to agree to calling Maxwell's equatins schizophrenic, but not because of their coupled equations nature, but because of its indeterministic nature

Well, if you don't set a boundary condition then the solution isn't determined. So in some sense that's obviously demanding too much. Math can't tell you what a differential equation will do if you don't give it boundary conditions. The retarded/advanced potentials are Green's functions, and Green's functions depend on boundary conditions.

The problem I'm talking about is in addition to this problem. If you somehow decided that you're only using the purely retarded potential, then you could calculate the EM field given the trajectories of the charges, but that still doesn't tell you how charges move. If you decide that a charge is affected by the entire EM field including its own field then you run into infinities, and if you decide that a charge is affected only by the combined field from all other charges in the universe then you run into the issue that I mentioned above. Simple ways to address the problem fail, e.g. if you replace the charges by a sphere with smeared out charge, then the solution is no longer relativistically invariant because rigid spheres aren't.

> I since long suspect Maxwells Equations to contain quantum mechanical behaviour that has not been explored yet.

I don't know about unexplored, but if I recall correctly, Schrodinger was highly influenced by Maxwell's equations.

Basically, he noted the correspondence between ray optics (Fermat's least time principle) and classical mechanics (least action principle). Maxwell's equations are the wave version of ray optics, so he asked himself whether there is a wave version of mechanics. In other words, ray optics is to classical mechanics as Maxwell's equations are to what? So there's not just an analogy between Maxwell's equations and QM, but that's actually partially how QM came to be in the first place! Maybe you could even claim that Maxwell's equations should be classified as quantum physics not classical physics. After all, if the paradoxical nature of the double slit experiment is called quantum physics then surely Maxwell's equations are quantum physics because they correctly predict the result, as opposed to ray optics which does not. Maxwell's equations are a quantum theory of a single photon, ray optics are the classical theory of a single photon.