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by schoen
2742 days ago
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Presumably the arithmetician will answer that its factorization is the empty set. That's what sympy says, for example. >>> sympy.factorint(6)
{2: 1, 3: 1}
>>> sympy.factorint(1)
{}
This definition is also sensible because it also preserves uniqueness in both directions. The empty set is the only prime factorization of 1, and 1 is the only natural number whose prime factorization is the empty set. (Wikipedia has a footnote that "Using the empty product rule one need not exclude the number 1 [from the fundamental theorem of arithmetic], and the theorem can be stated as: every positive integer has unique prime factorization.")The fundamental theorem doesn't have to state that the prime factorization is nonempty. It's true that some mathematicians have defined 1 as a prime number and there's nothing logically inconsistent about doing so, but it makes most theorems and formulas in number theory more complex and so this definition has fallen out of favor. Edit: I think the Wikipedia article on the empty product gives some quite nice examples of the benefits of a closely related concept. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Empty_product |
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Arithmetician (Ph.D. in number theory) here. This answer is completely correct.
As another reason why the factorization of 1 should be the empty set: suppose you have two positive integers m and n. Write S(m) and S(n) for their sets of prime divisors, counted with multiplicity.
Then S(mn) is the union of S(m) and S(n). We need S(1) to be the empty set to make this rule consistent.
Analogous to how log(1) is equal to 0.