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by lucb1e
2744 days ago
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> it would not make sense to prevent the public from buying certain Apple products if those sales aren't preventing Qualcomm from selling its own competing products I'm not sure if I understand you correctly. Wouldn't, by the same reasoning, the whole patent system be useless? If Q has a patent and A sells a competing product that infringes on that patent, it doesn't make sense to stop A from selling that product because Q can still sell their product? Isn't that exactly what a patent is about: stopping competition (who might not have had to do all the R&D, since you published your patent with information on how to perform the feat) from selling competing products? |
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Instead, they'd just let the civil court case proceed, and either it'll be settled out of court (with Apple paying Qualcomm some amount of money to cover existing sales, plus agreeing to a licensing deal for future sales) or they duke it out in court, where (if Qualcomm prevails) Apple is forced by the court to pay some sort of judgment.