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by harimau777
2750 days ago
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My understanding is that one of the primary differentiators between serfs and lords was that lords were able to own land. Since many (most?) people in the US cannot afford the land and other resources necessary to provide for themselves (e.g. via farming or craftsmanship), I'm not sure that it's unfair to draw a parallel between them and serfs. |
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It's really not that uncommon for people outside of major cities to own their home?