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by SilasX 2760 days ago
Why would that matter? If they are obligated by their funds' charters not to intervene, then all the governance decisions happen exactly as if they hadn't invested, right? 10% vs 90% of share votes being on auto-pilot shouldn't matter?

Is the argument that the vast majority of them could change their funds' charter to allow them to be actively involved with governance? If so, that would be really hard to achieve even if many of them worked at it.

Edit: three people have made the same "it's easier to get a controlling interest" argument. See my reply in the follow-up before making another redundant comment.

5 comments

> 10% vs 90% of share votes being on auto-pilot shouldn't matter?

I'm not familiar with these non-intervention clauses, but in the 10/90 scenario haven't you made it much easier to seize control of the company? Now I only need 5%+1 of the shares to do as I wish?

Or, it's easier to pass things with a shareholder vote because the index funds won't vote.
If 90% of shares are non-intervening that means hostile takeovers are now 10x cheaper to implement. It would be weird to be a company with market cap $100M, where $10M could buy a controlling interest in voting shares.
Non-intervening usually means the vote according to the recommendations of the board, and not that they abstain from voting.
That seems like a different kind of problem though. If funds that vote according to the recommendations of the board own >50% of the company, the board becomes unaccountable. (Unless they apply different rules to board elections, but then we're back to the original problem because the minority activist can elect their own board.)
This seems to be mostly in keeping with the spirit of index funds. It's a hands off approach that lets the company run itself.

In theory an index fund should never own that much of a company, because that means it would own >50% of all publicly traded companies. The whole point is to spread the risk evenly so you can realize the average returns without having to put any thought into it. It shouldn't mean it's buying $100k shares of GE and also $100k shares of Mom&Pop Pickle Fork Inc.

But if all the index funds together own >50%, and they all go with the board, then it's the same as if it was a single company that went with the board.
> If 90% of shares are non-intervening that means hostile takeovers are now 10x cheaper to implement.

Naively (ignoring other dynamics of index funds), sure, compared to 100% investors actively engaged in governance. But I suspect investment in index funds replaces largely hands-off direct investment and so, market wide, has virtually no average effect on that (though it may shift the effect among firms compared to those investors doing so directly.)

You also can't determine which 5% you're buying on the open market. You might just be buying shares sold by index funds.
Only if you ranked the price by buying shares. But even if that’s as the case the. The threshold is 10% not 5%. Point still stands.
It's not any easier (to a first approximation), because the share price will increase as you try to buy in, and the lower fraction of actively traded shares makes them that much more scarce and ramp up in value that much more quickly.
To expound what you're suggesting, which is completely ridiculous, is that if someone buys 5.1% of actively traded float, the price will exponentially surge such that it would be equivalently priced to purchasing 51% of float in a market without a 90% passive stake.
Not only that, it doesn't account for short sellers. Index funds will happily lend their "passive" shares to anyone (i.e. short sellers) willing to pay interest. So if prices start to rise as someone tries to buy 5%+1 of the shares, others will rightly determine that the shares are now overvalued and start selling them short (especially if the buyer is expected to harm the company), allowing the buyer to keep buying at a minor premium over the original price. Or even at a discount, if the purchase is seen as inevitable and the damage they're expected to do gets priced in.
> then all the governance decisions happen exactly as if they hadn't invested, right? 10% vs 90% of share votes being on auto-pilot shouldn't matter?

If that was the case it would have been easy. Handful of people fighting for power.

But from what I can read the problem is exactly the opposite. As someone said below that Blackrock has been known to rubber stamp executive salary and maybe others follow suit. What is then stopping companies from going bigger and bigger on executive salary knowing that they will get rubber stamped from the funds?

What happens if there is a complex governance issue which requires vote and the index fund lack the motivation to ensure that they have weighed all the decisions correctly?

Much easier for other parties to get a controlling interest if you need 5.1% of the stock compared to 50.1%
Ignoring the obvious controlling interest issues which others have mentioned, which is the largest issue...

That's a funny contradiction of a sort - then the index fund becomes the agent it's supposed to be observing.

For one, Blackrock is not Berkshire Hathaway - and in reality, obviously Blackrock can't wake up tomorrow and decide to be. They're not built for that.

Another scary thing is that the market is being increasingly turned into a derivative, and the underlying asset becomes more volatile (certainly for many different reasons) as it becomes proportionally smaller .