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by zanny
2765 days ago
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So the implication is that Reagan instituted broad and substantial tax reduction for the rich in combination with the institution of enormous federal deficit spending in order to offset rising oil consumption following two oil crisis the previous decade? We saw how oil turned out in the long run. Reagans policies, if anything, only gave dictatorships another two decades of unmitigated dominance in an industry we have seen the US itself rapidly commercialize internally. Most US consumed oil is now domestic, and most of the growth happened in the rebound from the 08 recession. I'd be really interested in comparing the economic policies of how Reaganomics protracted foreign dependence while the late Bush / Obama era bailouts and recovery stimulus somehow exploded the domestic market. Or that neither of those had anything to do with oil, and that the development of the market and industry as a whole was detached enough from federal law of the US that neither president is responsible for anything in that regard. |
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The 'fix' could well be rich people being worse off, not poor or middle income people being better off. Not much of a solution, that.
A fun thought experiment, there are some good answers to this: at the end of the day, a different policy would be redistributing something real away from the rich. That wouldn't be food (rich people eat as much as everyone else), so what would it be? That is to day, what exactly are the rich securing that is unfair? (money isn't a valid answer, the answer is what the money is then used to buy)