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by ucaetano
2781 days ago
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> If a company has a persistently high market share and has had for a long while, it has an effective monopoly whether or not it has ineffectual competitors. No, it doesn't. Making up your own definition of monopoly (or the meaningless "effective monopoly") doesn't make it true, valid, or useful. The Supreme Court has defined market power as "the ability to raise prices above those that would be charged in a competitive market,"(8) and monopoly power as "the power to control prices or exclude competition."(9) The Supreme Court has held that "[m]onopoly power under § 2 requires, of course, something greater than market power under § 1." |
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