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by throwawaymath
2781 days ago
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Can you clarify that last point? I don't think it's strictly true. Aside from countable and uncountable infinities, you can have larger and smaller infinites as well. Unless every set S of all rational numbers between any irrational x and irrational y is isomorphic to the set P of all rational numbers, I don't see that this is correct. And I don't immediately see that you can put them into 1-1 correspondence. |
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