|
|
|
|
|
by sonnyblarney
2788 days ago
|
|
"I'm pointing out that the effectiveness of these measures seems quite low according to the data" No ... the data shows that there is actually more equal opportunity, and yet there is gender divergence. The objective was never to 'equalize choices or outcomes' in fields - it was to provide access and opportunity, which is happening. It would be really, really hard to argue against the flood of data points indicating women have considerably greater choice, flexibility and support especially in places like Sweden ... and then to have women doing different things, highlights the apparent paradox. |
|
Actually, it shows that there are more of these "opportunity metrics." But we need to ask how reflective of reality these metrics actually are, don't we? If the metrics are bad, that's also another explanation of this "paradox." If someone says, "equal time for paternity and maternity should cause this outcome", but it didn't... well... then we need to examine every reason why that might be? It could be that the law is counterproductive, that men are choosing not to exercise rights, that women are choosing to exercise their rights differently, or that the measures themselves were not actually effective (either by not addressing root causes, or by not actually being deployed effectively).
Why is this question controversial?