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> Maybe this isn't the right place to ask, but could someone explain the rationale for taxing gifts within a family? Could you explain the rationale for excluding such unearned income, other than privileging generational wealth against wealth earned by personal work and investment? > Ignoring the possibility of using it to circumvent an income tax, etc., my initial thought is that if my dad wants to give me $30,001 this year, or even $300,000 this year, that he's already paid taxes on it and it's not the government's business. He's paid tax on his income. When it goes to you, you are the then receiving income—whether it's as a gift or a payment for goods or services, whether you are in the family or not. Favoring one of those situations over another is just that, favoritism; it's not justifiable by “already paid” logic in one case but not the others. |
If I buy a round of drinks, do people have to pay tax?
(I assume there's some minimum threshold)