[eli]

> I know of multiple companies where they prior to GDPR asked for explicit concent during signup for being allowed to send newsletters, but who post-GDPR dropped the concent and use 'Legitimate intrests' to justify it. Basically leaving the individual worse off.

Can you name names? Not saying I don't believe, it's just that this seems like a pretty nonsensical approach. If companies though that some pre-GDPR law required them to get consent than isn't that law still in force post-GDPR?