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by mlechha
2797 days ago
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Whenever this comes up, I think about the conjunction fallacy https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Conjunction_fallacy. The observation that human subjects seem to assign higher probability to joint events than a single event. Which is weird because the probability of two events at the same time (conjunction) is always less than or equal to the probability of a single event on its own. How does the Bayesian brain hypothesis deal with this fallacy? It seems to me that nothing based on classical probability can explain this fallacy. So either the observation that humans can assign higher probability to joint events is wrong or human decision making isn't exactly probabilistic (in the classical sense, can't rule out exotic probabilistic approaches). EDIT: As several folks have commented that the conjunction fallacy can be explained away by different arguments based on interpretation and semantic issues. Indeed, the original Linda problem was susceptible to these issues. However, since then several researchers have tried to study this effect more carefully and it seems to still persist. An example that I'm aware of is the following https://link.springer.com/article/10.3758/BF03195280 where the authors used unambiguous language and a betting paradigm, but still found the effect. Again, this is most likely not fool proof. Regardless, I do not think the fallacy can be trivially explained away as an effect of ambiguous language. |
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Instead of choosing from options:
1) Linda is A
2) Linda is A and B
they might actually understand the first statement in the context of the second statement as:
1) Linda is A and not B