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by tronko 2803 days ago
That's not true at all. In Spain no language was forbidden as was in France and Jews were expelled because

- The pressure of mendicant orders.

- The pope.

1 comments

I think we are speaking at different levels, sort of. Jews (later Muslims) were given an actual, literal choice. For other groups/languages/whatnot it was "metaphorical."

Some of these processes are literal decrees, banning practices, languages or people. Some are less legible, like "soft power" in modern terms. I'm interested in the long term results, which was (in the case of Spain early on, and many/most places subsequently) a decisive change from multiculturalism (like the sephardi community of Bosnia represents) to national monoculturalism.

That is, over the centuries societal pressures and dynamics were such that a more monolithic identity succeeded a patchwork of language, dialect and culture.

My argument (I suspect we disagree) is that Spain was an earlier example of something that happened widely in the 19th, 20th and is still ongoing: Nation states emerging from empires and advancing towards cultural homogeneity, to the detriment of multiculturalism which existed under most empires.

When Turkey "emerged" this involved a similar process, expulsion (and worse) of Armenians & Greeks, and conformity pressure on other minorities.

A similar thing happened in Poland, which was barely more than 50% polish speaking catholic when my grandmother was born there, and is 9X% polish catholic now.

When Ireland emerged from Britain, migrations and border gerrymandering ensured "Irish Catholic" homegeneity.