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by trustmath 2808 days ago
That's always the excuse but an algorithm that shows bias against women has nothing to do with who has what interest unless that's a variable included in the data set initially. You are inferring that relation implicitly due to the result of the algorithm, but it doesn't mean that value is measured in the original set of data. If the algorithm is skewed to imply that, there is at least the possiblity that the algorithm has been trained to yield that result.

I wouldn't know unless I looked at all the data. But I'm not going to default to the popular opinion because that's literally half or more of the problem.