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by bicubic 2814 days ago
Cheers, that was a good read. I'd still attribute the argument to Marx, because Smith doesn't seem to link this effect with the inherent values of capitalism.

Turns out there's also a wikipedia page outlining the history of this line of reasoning:

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Division_of_labour#Henri-Louis...

1 comments

But the word 'Capitalism' did not exist in Smith's day!