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by orteam 2817 days ago
It seems from the comments that people are trying to find an easy way out from the dilemma - like supposing 2 different 'I's or the same 'I' that partakes in 2 different worlds/realities. The reading that I like better is this: given the same frame of reference (same 'I', same reality) to both parts of the sentence, does it represent a logical fallacy?