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by monktastic1
2832 days ago
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The only explanation I've ever seen of when worlds split is when decoherence has become "effectively irreversible." That's not a well-defined physical event, and so it's hard to say that worlds "actually" split. For your unentangled state on the left, Sean Carroll explicitly describes it as a state that doesn't have two worlds yet. I can find the post if you like, or maybe we already agree and I'm misunderstanding. |
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In what I am describing, the two "worlds" don't really separate. It is possible that they can interact, theoretically. However, you can't construct an experiment to detect the different parts of the wavefunction interacting because of decoherence. You just can not make a coherent quantum system that invovles real people (to my knowledge). So in practice you can not do the experiment.In anything we observe, the two resulting observers (in a measurement with two choices) are effectively isolated.
In other words, decoherence is automatic. Also, it is inherently irreversible.
But, I am sure he (or whoever wrote that post) is saying something sensible so I would be interested in seeing it.