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by _Codemonkeyism 2850 days ago
From the linked article:

"A score in the bottom 5% would typically mean there is a problem. But Shura pointed out that the diplomats were found to be “impaired” if they scored in the bottom 40% in any one of the tests. In their letter, the doctors said it was “inappropriate” to conclude that any of the patients were impaired. "

2 comments

It’s unfortunately quite challenging to diagnose cognitive impairment based on neuropsychological assessment at a single point in time post-injury. That’s because we don’t know what the person’s level of cognitive function was before the injury. If a person had cognitive function 1 standard deviation above the mean pre-injury (equivalent to an IQ of 115, speaking loosely) and suffered a 1 standard deviation loss as a result of the injury, they would then test in the normal range - but still clearly have suffered damage.

The response articles calling for a 5th percentile measure to diagnose impairment are in a sense statistically appropriate - you’d like to see very significant impairment to diagnose it from a single measure - but not sensitive - they will miss a lot of true cases of mild impairment. For example, that threshold would miss virtually all cases of concussion, chemobrain, cognitive impairment in MS, etc.

What these doctors are missing is the power of statistical correlation to separate signal from noise. Yes, a single individual testing below 40% means nothing, but 20 people (or however many it was) all from the same office testing below 40% is starting to be significant.
They've tested 6, don't know how they drew the sample.