I'm not understanding this line of reasoning. Are you assuming the US didn't have inflation in that time? I know it would be less than the lira but even still I'm not sure there would be a direct correlation.
Us inflation is 1-2%.
I over-simplified the logic, but turkish lira lost 10% of its value every year while the us lost 1%. All things equal the exchange rate would track that. Of course it's not this simple, if turkey's lira were more valuable because of our political position, export industry etc, equation would skew, but most of the economic boom in turkey came from construction.