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by beaner 2867 days ago
You're talking about selling things that enable violent crimes against others, while the person you're responding to is taking about selling benign things with which one can only harm oneself. They seem categorically different.
2 comments

I flat out do not by that "can only harm oneself" argument. The effects of addiction on those close to the addict are quite well documented.
I sell a gun to someone who has expressed to me interest in self harm. They commit suicide. Did I "cause death"?
You would be complicit fault is infinitely divisible.
Does fault need to divide, or can it apply severally?
The distinction is tools of force vs other.