| Consider the following two functions, that we can define for any field F: • Our first function f(x, y) is defined for all x in F, and all nonzero y in F. That is, the domain of this function f is (F × F\{0}). The definition of this function f is: f(x, y) = x times the multiplicative inverse of y (Note that in the definition of f(x,y) we could say "if y≠0", but whether we say it or not the meaning is the same, because the domain of f already requires that y≠0.) • Our second function g(x, y) is defined for all x in F, and all y in F. That is, the domain of this function g is (F × F). To define this function g, we pick a constant C in F, say C=0 or C=1 (or any C∈F, e.g. C=17 if 17 is an element of our field). And having picked C, the definition of this function g is: • g(x, y) = x times the multiplicative inverse of y, if y ≠ 0, and C otherwise [that is, g(x, 0) = C]. Note that this function is defined for all (x, y) in F×F, and when y≠0 it agrees with f, i.e. g(x,y) = f(x,y) when y≠0. Would you agree that both of these are functions, on different domains? Next, we have the notation x/y. To assign meaning to this notation (and to the word “division”), there are two conventions we could adopt: • Convention 1: When we say "x/y", we will mean f(x,y) (as defined above) — that is, x * y^{-1}. • Convention 2: When we say "x/y", we will mean g(x,y) (as defined above). The point of the post is that we can well adopt Convention 2: with such a definition of "division", all the properties that were true of f (on the domain F×F\{0}) continue to be true of g, except that g is defined on a wider domain. ---------------------------------------------- Now, maybe Convention 2 offends you. Maybe you think there is something very sacred about Convention 1. In all your posts in this thread, you seem to be insisting that "division" or "/" necessarily have to mean Convention 1, and the provided justification for preferring Convention 1 seems circular to me — here are some of your relevant comments, with my comments in [square brackets]: > Since there is no multiplicative inverse of 0, division by 0 is undefined behavior [This seems to be saying: Because of Convention 1, we cannot adopt Convention 2.] > Since y = x/0, it follows that the product of y and 0 is equal to x, because division is the inverse of multiplication [Here, your reasoning is "because we adopt Convention 1"] > in algebraic fields division by x is equivalent to multiplication by 1/x. This is precisely why you cannot have a field that admits division by 0: because 0 has no multiplicative inverse. [Again, you're stating that Convention 1 has to hold, by fiat.] > If F is a field with elements x, y, then the quotient x/y is equivalent to the product x(1/y). If 0 has no multiplicative inverse, there is no division by 0. The two concepts are one and the same [This is just stating repeatedly that we have to adopt Convention 1.] > A multiplicative inverse is a division. [This is merely insisting that Convention 1 has to be adopted, not Convention 2] > divisor cannot exist unless it is a multiplicative inverse [Again, stating Convention 1.] > you can't look at the field axioms, observe that 0 has no multiplicative inverse, then proceed to define a special, one-off division rule that doesn't involve multiplicative inverses for that one element. [Why not?] ...you've introduced a division rule which is just a syntactical sugar [yes the same is true of Convention 1; what's the problem?] All these comments, which emphatically insist on Convention 1, seem to ignore the point of the article, which is that Convention 2 has no more mathematical problems than Convention 1, because the function g is no less a “valid” function than the function f. In mathematics when we use words like “obvious” or insist that something is true because it just has to be true, that's usually a hint that we may need to step back and consider whether what we're saying is really mathematically justified. What we have here is a case of multiple valid definitions that we can adopt, and there's no mathematical reason for not adopting one over the other. (There's a non-mathematical reason, namely “it breaks convention”, but the entire point is that we can break this convention.) |
I don't take issue with division by 0 - you can do that in mathematics just fine! I take issue with defining that division and calling the consequent system a field when it's not a field, and acting as though everyone else is wrong. The author invited this criticism when they loaded in the full formalism of field theory without needing to.
If the author had just stated they wanted to define division by zero that wouldn't be a problem. I have no idea why they felt the need to pull in abstract mathematics. I'm not disagreeing with their point, I'm taking issue with the strange and incorrect way they defended it.
Note that in my top level comment I specifically said, "Mathematics does not give us truths, it gives us consequences." I will happily agree with you that there is usefulness and coherence in a definition of 0. There is no canonical truth about the world regarding that matter. But a direct consequence of defining any division by 0 is that you cease to have an algebraic field.
Therefore, using field theory to defend a system which defines division by 0 doesn't make sense. It's not that the system is "wrong" for some meaning of wrongness. It's that you shouldn't be trying to pigeonhole field theory to make it work, because you don't need to.