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by pron
2877 days ago
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There is a mistake in your step 3, as it relies on an informal and imprecise "division is the inverse of multiplication". If you were to write that formally, you'd get `∀ x ≠ 0 . x(1/x) = 1`. This holds unchanged even if you define division by zero. Even if you could come up with another formalization that does cause a problem, e.g. `∀ x ∈ dom(1/t) . x(1/x) = 1` (and I would say that this is the only formalization that causes an issue, and it requires the use of a language with a dom operator, something that is absolutely not required for theories of fields), it won't matter because the question is not whether one could come up with a formalization that leads to contradiction, but whether there are reasonable formalizations of fields where this does not happen, and there are (in fact, most of them satisfy this, as they do not rely on a dom operator). In addition, it is not true that "by the field axioms, division does not exist if there is no multiplicative inverse with which to multiply." It's just that the field axioms do not define what the meaning of division is in that case. Defining it, however, does not lead to contradiction with the axioms, at least not a contradiction you've point out. In fact, most common languages of mathematics cannot even explicitly express the statement "x is not in the domain of f." All they can do is define f(x) for values of x in the domain, and not define f(x) for values outside it. The "exist" in your statement does not refer to ordinary mathematical existence (usually formally expressed with the existential quantifier) but to an informal notion of definedness (discussed by Feferman) that has no formal counterpart in most formal systems, because it is very rarely needed; it is certainly not needed to state the field axioms. |
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You can't engage with the problem because it only exists as a syntactical annoyance. You seem to acknowledge this, but then continue to argue when I explicitly tell you I am in agreement on that point. Then you proceed to argue the theoretical basis all over again.
I'm not going to continue arguing this with you. You're presently the only one in this thread who isn't following and I've tried to direct you to other resources. You've alternated between saying those proofs are either incorrect outright or not applicable because they don't have relevance for programming. If you actually believe division by 0 is possible in fields you have an immediately publishable math paper waiting for you to submit it.
Otherwise we're just talking past each other because my whole point here has been that the author's discussion of fields is irrelevant for programming language theory in the first place.