[onomonomono]

Somebody with more expertise than me needs to chime in here.

If you take the data from Table S2 and perform a two-sample binomial test (as seen here[0] and at 3 minutes here[1]) you can directly contradict a statement in the paper's abstract ("Male patients and female patients experience similar outcomes when treated by female physicians") Using the female doctor numbers I get a z-value of 8.36 which is well over the standard two-tailed significance value of 1.96 for p<0.05. With N being so large it looks like the gender of the patient is absolutely statistically significant with female doctors as well as male.

I feel like I must be missing something here but I'm such a beginner with statistics that I don't know what it is. Is it not a binomial distribution, is it not normally distributed? Am I plugging my numbers in wrong?

[0] - https://stats.stackexchange.com/questions/113602/test-if-two... [1] - https://www.coursera.org/lecture/biostatistics-2/two-sample-...