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by bastijn
2881 days ago
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and you would be right. Say I have a broken phone which is an Android. A prejudice would be that androids are likely to break. Mathematically we could represent as P(broken|android) =~ P(android|broken)
We see from Bayes rule that this is false, since P(android) >> P(broken)
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But when my iPhone breaks, I take it into Apple for service and add it to my collection of “Apple gives great service” data points.
Saying that prejudice is just applied statistics completely mischaracterizes prejudice.