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by viscanti
2899 days ago
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He made some purchases on the old ToS and some on the newer ToS. So he did agree to forced arbitration on the bulk of his transactions. That's not saying that the first transactions should be grouped in (or that forced arbitration should ever happen) but this isn't just a company changing the ToS later without him ever agreeing. |
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2.Change price.
3.Sell some more products.
4.Send lawyers to collect diff on product sold in [1].
The question is, was he made aware, that his previous agreement will be changed when he was giving some more money?