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by kgwgk 2903 days ago
> Your "3" is a Bayesian view.

Except for the infinite number of universes nonsense :-)

1 comments

Dear downvoters: Even if we assume an infinite number of (real or imaginary) universes, what does “in exactly half of the worlds" mean? This definition doesn’t seem at all less problematic that the usual ones.
I think "infinite" is just sloppy language. If every possible universe exists in some sense, that is a large number, but not infinite - because nothing about a universe has infinite precision. Thus, "half" would still mean something.