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by PurpleBoxDragon 2907 days ago
Is that for using a personal moral definition of consent (even if it is quite a popular one) or using a scientific definition? I find most people will find scientifically consensual cases morally wrong when considering the edge cases (since the scientific tests for consent are not based on age and instead based on measuring ability, they are mostly developed for studying mentally disabled adults, but the finding apply regardless).
1 comments

I suppose that gets more into agency? I would assume, barring a good reason, that in most conversations 'consent' would imply that the persons involved in fact had agency to give consent.