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by linuxkerneldev
2908 days ago
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> Didn't the British empire ban slaves and slavery on English soil at the start of the 19th century? Depends on your meaning and what dates. The British did NOT ban slavery "at the start of the 19th century" (meaning 1800s). They banned only the buying of slaves using English vessels and even then it was nominally enforced. In 1833, the English compensated approximately 3000 slavers for "loss of business assets" (yes, that's right, they compensated the slavers, not the slaves) including the ancestors of David Cameron, the Bazalgettes and other wealthy families. Almost instantly after the passing of the 1833 act, the British used indentured labour to replace slavery. Indentured labour was found to be equivalently cruel. The historical record shows death rates as high or higher than the slavery period for indentured labourers brought from South Asia to the West Indies and South East Asia. https://www.theguardian.com/commentisfree/2006/dec/12/thefor... |
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This is a very interesting timeline about the abololition of slavery in different places and peoples https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Timeline_of_abolition_of_slave... i think it is also good to see things in the larger context