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by sl8r
2908 days ago
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Part of the issue is that you can't not assume a prior; it's unavoidable. The Bayesian POV just makes this assumption clear / explicit, while many frequentist methods (if naively applied) amount to choosing a uniform prior. E.g., imagine you have an e-commerce site that has, historically, had a 2% conversion rate (landing page to purchase). Now you run an A/B test with two variants, a control (A) and a treatment (B). Both buckets get 10,000 landings, of which A converts 200 of them and B converts 250. How can you tell if A is better than B? Cutting to the chase, the frequentist approach (if applied naively) would be to model B as some distribution centered around 2.5%, for example N(2.5%, 0.15%) or Beta(251, 9751). A Bayesian would say that this assumes a uniform prior - but that this is probably a bad prior because it ignores what we know about the historical conversion rate of 2.0%. Said another way, the above amounts to saying (before we run the test) that we think it's just as likely for B to have a conversion rate of 2.5% as it is to have a conversion rate of 100%. Clearly we don't actually believe this. |
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Why would that be wrong?
> A Bayesian would say that this assumes a uniform prior - but that this is probably a bad prior because it ignores what we know about the historical conversion rate of 2.0%.
What would a Bayesian conclude instead?