[tgb]

Am I missing how this operates? I see others on the article making the same claim as you, but isn't the ruling that if company X sells to person A then the state where A resides gets to tax the sale? So in any transaction there will be one or more party that can vote on the tax. You can hardly complain about that unless you think it is valid to tax transactions that occur between two people if and only if they live near each other. Edit: and the sales tax was already legal to impose, the only change is whether the purchaser or the seller collects it. So this doesn't change whether anything is taxed, hence not changing whether it's taxation without representation.