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by mdorazio 2925 days ago
Fortunately or unfortunately, "encouraged shady behavior" does not directly equate to "illegal". For example, if you encourage someone to steal a car tomorrow you're not doing anything illegal until they actually do it, they tell you they did it, and you fail to report it (accessory at that point). The actual crime part is on them.

It's massively unethical and it feels like people should be in jail, but proving actual crime took place during the lead-up to the recession would be a massive undertaking with little satisfaction as payout, and just as many run-of-the-mill home buyers going to jail as lender associates or executives.
2 comments
dragonwriter 2925 days ago
> For example, if you encourage someone to steal a car tomorrow you're not doing anything illegal until they actually do it.

No, you've committed the crime of solicitation at the moment you encouraged a particular person to commit a particular crime. And, if they agree and either of you takes any concrete step to implement the agreement (even short of completing the theft), you've both committed the crime of conspiracy.

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vanderZwan 2925 days ago
> Fortunately or unfortunately, "encouraged shady behavior" does not directly equate to "illegal".

If an expert tells you to break the law and insists it's fine, and you don't really know how all of this works, I don't think we can still call that merely "encouraging shady behavior".

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mdorazio 2925 days ago
I'm pretty sure we can and do exactly that all the time. Case law established a very long time ago that ignorance of the law is not an excuse for illegal activity. The burden of crime is always on the person committing the crime, not the person inciting it, expert or not (there's a small exception here for entrapment, but that's completely separate from this situation).

I could be wrong here, so if you or anyone else with more legal background than I have can point to specific prosecutions related to this kind of situation I'd love to read more.

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ggg9990 2925 days ago
“Inciting” is exactly the name given to the crime of inducing someone else to commit a crime.
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mdorazio 2925 days ago
No, that's only for inciting physical violence (against a person or property) in conjunction with a felony. It would not apply to anything from the mortgage bubble. Unless you've got a specific law to reference?
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