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by OskarS
2925 days ago
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It's usually referred to as "c". I'm not sure what you're asking? It's like saying "3 is the number that follows 2", and then asking "yeah, but what really IS the number 3, man?". The answer is: it's the cardinality of the sets which can be in a bijection with the power set of the natural numbers. If you're referring to the continuum hypothesis, that is a distinct question from "what is the cardinality of the real numbers". Also: a solved one, the contiuum hypothesis is independent of ZFC, so saying "we don't even know what the cardinality is" is still wrong. |
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There is a massive gap between 3 and the cardinality of the continuum. 3 is directly examinable. If I count some collection of objects, my fingers say, I will immediately grasp 3.
On the other hand, the set of real numbers is a highly pathological, abstract concept. Everything we know about the reals suffers from two severe deficiencies: One, it depends on infinitary axioms which presuppose facts about the phenomenon we would like to investigate. Two, even what we can infer from such axioms is always indirect evidence. That's not surprising: All reasoning about infinity is indirect.
In certain mathematical settings it is even true that the Cauchy sequence definition of real numbers and the Dedekind cut definition do not agree. At the very least, the reals isn't even a thing: there are many reals. That you say that "we know the cardinality of the reals" because we know CH is independent of ZFC is... preposterous to say the least. "If you assume you know the cardinality of the reals, then you know the cardinality of the reals; therefore we know the cardinality of the reals" is basically what such axiomatic acrobatics boils down to. Axioms are not knowledge.