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by lotsofpulp 2933 days ago
Why wouldn't it be? Did the PE firm force someone to issue debt for a worthless business? I would hold the lender responsible for due diligence.
1 comments

The question was more: why does the law allow this? They are using one company to benefit another, then leaving it in debt without financial liability. Seems like a gaping loophole in the law there.
Except they had financial liability: all the collateral they lost.