[ealloc]

No it isn't. There is still plenty of debate about the philosophical implications of Bells' inequality.

See for example this 2014 PNAS article "Quantum nonlocality does not exist": http://www.pnas.org/content/111/31/11281

You can find plenty more if you google. I personally agree with the ideas of that paper in a broad sense if not in detail, as do many people.

Second, if you are trying to argue that locality is no longer a guiding principle, note how the standard model is quantum-mechanical so obeys bell's inequality, yet we still call it "local". Locality was a key guiding principle of the standard model.