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by darkmighty
2935 days ago
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Isn't this description flawed though? Waves of different frequencies are independent in power. Thus they don't interfere (when time-averaged) -- at all. Zero. (this is because signals of different frequencies are orthogonal in the time-average integral of product sense) What creates interference is difference is phase among waves of the exact same frequency. It's odd that the paper author is making such basic EM theory mistake, and I wonder what the actual device construction is like. (since it cannot work the way he describes at steady state) Maybe he's interpreting phase modulation as frequency modulation? Of course at steady state all frequencies would be the same, making this a weird/incorrect interpretation I think. |
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But then, I'm not an antenna designer, I may have something fundamentally wrong in my understanding. :)