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by kazen44
2934 days ago
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This is basically the same in the US or any other major country/economic block with a single currency. Setting a price in the US will mean you also exclude people from poorer regions where cost of living and wages are lower. This is not exclusive in the eurozone. Also, your last argument makes little sense in my opinion. The EU's predecessors itself massively distorted both steel and coal markets to "force" peace and cooperation through the contintent and deal with the age old problem of nationalism and revenge over old wars... Could that be considered a bad thing because it distorted the markets? I highly doubt many would agree? |
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I'm not an expert on the relevant policies in the US. Are there laws that prevent charging a different price to customers in one state compared to another, if spending power is much higher in one than the other?
Could that be considered a bad thing because it distorted the markets? I highly doubt many would agree?
I said there was always a risk, not that it was inevitable that any distortion in the markets would be a bad thing. All regulatory actions distort free markets as well, but that doesn't mean all regulation is bad.
In this case, however, we're talking about an EU that typically tries quite hard to prevent businesses from offering something at one price in say Germany and at another price in say Greece. It's quite possible that this prevents some products or services from being financially viable if they are offered at a price the Greeks could afford, while offering the same products or services at a financially viable price the Germans can afford excludes the Greeks entirely, meaning the supplier and/or the Greek consumers lose out either way.