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by kuschku 2951 days ago
If OP is in the EU, then that entire clause is null and void and Apple can be held liable.
1 comments

The OP’s company has a revenue share agreement with Apple where Apple is the service provider who makes OP’s software available to its customers at its discretion.

What’s illegal or unenforceable about this agreement between two corporations?

The part where OP signs away its rights to go to court over the definition of when their software has to be made available.

If Apple was just a random company only running an app store, it'd be different.

But Apple has a monopoly on app stores for iOS and macOS by preinstalling them, similar to Microsoft preinstalling Internet Explorer.

As a result of being the only possible marketplace for these platforms, Apple can't just act at its own discretion.

The anti-trust line of reasoning was debunked a decade ago.

And the fact is that Apple has acted on its own discretion possibly thousands of times when it came to the App Store. In fact they've been doing it since day 1. They have banned pornography, gambling, cryptocurrencies etc and they will continue to ban more in the future.

It's 100% legal and their right.