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by cr1895 2961 days ago
From your own link:

"A person can be found guilty of that offense only if all of the following facts are proven: The person received or concealed or stored or disposed of items of stolen property. The items were moving as, or constituted a part of, interstate commerce. The items had a value in excess of $5,000. The person acted knowingly and willfully."

So that doesn't really answer the question asked, because it's only a federal crime if the goods are known to be stolen and a part of "interstate commerce."

Now, at the state level, this may differ. But neither of us has that information.

1 comments

A subsequent section on Wikipedia (link [1] in GP) tells us the following:

>All US states also have laws regarding receipt of stolen property; however, there usually is no minimum dollar amount in many jurisdictions, and, of course, the requirement in Federal law regarding interstate commerce does not apply.

i.e., USA-wide

>Also, in many states (Ohio, for example), the burden to prove criminal intent is not as stringent or is nonexistent.

i hereby rest my case.

Curiously, the references backing those statements are both dead :)