[fwdpropaganda]

I'm very confused by your post.

> Neoclassical economics still has no plausible answer for the Anything Goes theorem:

What should it be answering? You linked to a theorem, not a question. And even if it were a question that a certain theory doesn't have an answer to, that's perfectly normal. Theories come with their domains of applicability. Go outside that and they "don't have an answer". For a comparison to physics, that would be like saying "centuries after the findings were published, Newton's theory still can't explain the speed of light being the same in every reference frame, I find it hard to conclude this is the method of an established science."

> I find it hard to conclude this would be the method of a established science.

What are you referring to when you say "this"? The thing you linked to is a theorem, not a method.

I think you might be assuming from me knowledge and context that I don't have.