| After writing this one out, this reminds me of the Monty Hall problem. In this case my guess is that you use a prior -- assume the two unknown numbers are A & B, and then assume a random integer yourself C. From there, if A (the first revealed number) is less than C, then that narrows the remaining cases giving you a 2/3 chance. If A is greater than C, that also narrows the remaining cases and gives you a 2/3 chance as well. On a number line, the cases are below. If A > C then the six originally equally possible cases are narrowed to three cases: A-----B-----C (impossible) A-----C-----B (impossible) B-----A-----C (impossible) B-----C-----A B < A C-----A-----B B > A C-----B-----A B < A So you would guess B < A -- the first hand's number is higher with probability 2/3. If A < C then the six originally equally possible cases are also narrowed to three cases: A-----B-----C B > A A-----C-----B B > A B-----A-----C B < A B-----C-----A (impossible) C-----A-----B (impossible) C-----B-----A (impossible) So you would guess B > A -- the first hand's number is lower with probability 2/3. |
This is impossible; there's no uniform measure on the integers (as σ-additivity makes it impossible to bound such a measure).