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by falcor84
2985 days ago
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As I understand it, the grandparent's argument is that earlier on in history, wars (and violence in general) would cause a reduction in the percentage of males. For example[0], in Soviet Russia following WW2, the ratio of young men/women dropped to 0.7. And that given that the China and India are more peaceful now (for various reasons), this violent force does not come into effect. I don't understand how your response is relevant to the above argument. [0] https://www.ucis.pitt.edu/nceeer/2007_820-4g_Brainerd1.pdf |
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